It does not seem feasible that even a 'worst case' OT winding, shorted completely from plate to CT, could cause such a discrepancy in plate current.
Consider that if one OT leg was 75 ohm and the other 0 ohms, given the same g1 and g2 voltages, if the plate current of the 75 ohm leg was 20mA, the plate of the 'shorted' leg would be 1.5V higher than that of the 75 ohm side.
That difference is negligible, it would make almost no difference to plate current; what controls plate current are the g1 and g2 voltages. The function of g2 is to 'decouple' plate current from plate voltage.
See the tube charts, eg the closest comparable being at the top of p7 of
http://www.mif.pg.gda.pl/homepages/fran ... /6L6GC.pdf
With g2 at 400V and g1 -40V, plate current is flat over a wide range of plate voltage.
It should be apparent that a volt or 2 change in plate voltage will have a negligible effect on plate current.
The plate voltage would have to drop from the usual ~450V to ~100V for the plate current to fall from ~50mA to ~25mA.
For such a change in plate current to have been caused by a discrepancy in the winding resistance of the OT primary legs, with the 'hot'side resistance less than 100 ohms, the 'cold' side resistance would have to be ~15k.
Hence my enquiry about the Vdc across either leg of the OT primary.
Hope that all makes sense.

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